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SHAKSPER 2006: Against All-Male Productions
From: Hardy M. Cook (editor@shaksper.net) Date: 07/21/06
The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 17.0687 Friday, 21 July 2006 [1] From: Elliott Stone <elliott.stone@comcast.net> Date: Thursday, 20 Jul 2006 15:31:55 -0400 Subj: Re: SHK 17.0682 Against All-Male Productions [2] From: David Bishop <dvbishop@mindspring.com> Date: Thursday, 20 Jul 2006 16:07:37 -0400 Subj: Re: SHK 17.0682 Against All-Male Productions [3] From: Paul Hebron <paulhebron@gmail.com> Date: Thursday, 20 Jul 2006 17:05:34 -0500 Subj: Against All Male Productions...... [4] From: Kristen McDermott <mcder1k@cmich.edu> Date: Thursday, 20 Jul 2006 18:43:26 -0400 Subj: RE: SHK 17.0676 [5] From: Charles Weinstein <proteus6847@msn.com> Date: Thursday, 20 Jul 2006 19:21:14 -0400 Subj: Against All-Male Productions [1]----------------------------------------------------------------- From: Elliott Stone <elliott.stone@comcast.net> Date: Thursday, 20 Jul 2006 15:31:55 -0400 Subject: 17.0682 Against All-Male Productions Comment: Re: SHK 17.0682 Against All-Male Productions Why is it that the practice of having boy actors take woman's parts continued on in England long after it had been given up in the rest of Europe? I have asked the question on several occasions but have never received a reasonable answer. Best, Elliott H. Stone [2]------------------------------------------------------------- From: David Bishop <dvbishop@mindspring.com> Date: Thursday, 20 Jul 2006 16:07:37 -0400 Subject: 17.0682 Against All-Male Productions Comment: Re: SHK 17.0682 Against All-Male Productions The "boy my greatness" moment seems to me an interesting example of breaking, or bending, the fourth wall. Shakespeare draws attention to the play as a play with words that are not an aside to the audience but simultaneously have force within the story. To take this in, the audience must see the actor both as a boy actor and as Cleopatra, if not simultaneously then in quick succession, or alternation. It seems to me that Shakespeare was so sure of the power of his story that he could bend or even briefly break the wall without feeling any danger of draining the emotion of the scene. It's quite a trick. While I generally think, with Charles Weinstein, that it's reasonable to believe that Shakespeare would have used women if he could have, this line also supports the interpretation that Cleopatra did not want to be diminished by being represented on the stage at all, by a boy or a woman. Still, a boy would seem an even more obviously inadequate representation of her than an actress. Her mockery draws attention to her power both as a queen and as a woman. Best wishes, David Bishop [3]------------------------------------------------------------- From: Paul Hebron <paulhebron@gmail.com> Date: Thursday, 20 Jul 2006 17:05:34 -0500 Subject: Against All Male Productions...... Despite my best efforts to follow my own advice, that is to stop reading this particular thread, I feel compelled to offer one more point. All right, maybe two. Charles Weinstein comments: "In which case one must also avoid the standard sentimentalities, viz., that Shakespeare was marvelously happy with his acting company, including the boys who played his women.'Short of a smoking gun like a handwritten letter,' there is no way of knowing whether Shakespeare thought those actors were superlative, merely adequate, partly good and partly bad or wholly inadequate to his conception." Well, not exactly. We do know from how he handled his affairs both in London and in Stratford that Shakespeare was an experienced man of business. We also know that, after Will Kemp left the Lord Chamberlain's Men, Shakespeare chose in his next two plays (Henry V and Julius Caesar) not to include a large role for a clown. While we can never know how directly causal the chain of events, his next play is As You Like It, and Robert Armin, experienced mimic and clown, is now a member of the company......and Touchstone makes his appearance. Is it not possible then to stretch this point to include James Shapiro's persuasive suggestions in 1599: A Year In The Life Of William Shakespeare, that the creation of what I would argue is his greatest female characterization, Rosalind, is a reflection of the playwright's faith in the abilities of the adolescent male who carried the role, and therefore the play? Or put another way, that he never would have written AYLI in the way that he did if he lacked faith in that young man to bring the character successfully to life. The same pragmatic businessman who worked around the departure of the popular Kemp by choosing material to suit the new realities of his company's circumstances, and who did so brilliantly, would likely have found another balance to the story of Rosalind and Orlando? Granted this evidence is circumstantial, but it is evidence none the less. Charles Weinstein responds to Hardy Cook's comments on the oft quoted "....some squeaking Cleopatra boy my greatness" thusly: "I fail to see how that refutes my interpretation, and I have yet to hear a plausible different one." Well, what about this. If your interpretation is based on your view that this line suggests the personal opinion in some way of Shakespeare, and that it was in fact his way of making a point about his own feelings concerning the restrictions of male (versus female) casting, then I assume that any response, like Hardy's, that refers that same line back to it's clear function for the character within the life of the play will fall short of your demands for refutation. All right, those are the rules of the game. Is it not possible that this specific comment of Cleopatra's was not, in fact, a reference to the general practice of female roles being played by adolescent males, and the consequent aesthetic restrictions that such a practice might have imposed on Shakespeare, but was rather Shakespeare making a point about one of the most significant forms of competition he and the Globe shareholders faced at this time; that is the children's companies, or the so called "boys' companies". The late 1590's saw a growth again in the popularity of such companies as the Children of Paul's, and at the Blackfriars, the Children of the Chapel; they continued to perform with varying degrees of success throughout the first decade of James I's reign. Known for their abilities as singers, and offering wealthier patrons the increased comforts of indoor performances, would it not be more reasonable to see Cleopatra's comment as a indirect jibe at these serious competitors, these companies composed entirely of "boys"?? Is this not at least as reasonable an explanation, once again albeit outside the life of the play, for this character's "comment", as it is to draw conclusions about the personal preferences of Shakespeare himself on the issue of male versus female actors? Done now. Thank you for your patience, and best regards to all. -- Paul Hebron [4]------------------------------------------------------------- From: Kristen McDermott <mcder1k@cmich.edu> Date: Thursday, 20 Jul 2006 18:43:26 -0400 Subject: 17.0676 Comment: RE: SHK 17.0676 Elizabeth S. Angello writes: >"And, not incidentally, Burbage did not perform Othello in blackface. >Does this make his performance, too, a travesty?" Do we know this for a fact? It has always been my understanding that when Queen Anna decided to perform in black makeup (and for this we have direct evidence) in The Masque of Blackness, shortly after Othello (probably) premiered, that she was intrigued by Burbage's blackface. See Bernadette Andrea, "Black Skin, The Queen's Masques," ELR 29.2 (1999): 246-81. Kris McDermott Central Michigan University [5]------------------------------------------------------------- From: Charles Weinstein <proteus6847@msn.com> Date: Thursday, 20 Jul 2006 19:21:14 -0400 Subject: Against All-Male Productions Gender aside, some people think that boys could never have done justice to characters as complex, imposing and experienced as Lady Macbeth and Cleopatra. The late Marvin Rosenberg felt this so strongly that he posited grown men as the original performers. See The Masks of Anthony and Cleopatra (2006) at 21-25. His position has not found acceptance, and David Kathman has refuted it convincingly. Thus, one can reasonably believe that the roles were played by boys, and that the boys were probably inadequate. Where does that leave Shakespeare? Perhaps he wrote for himself or the future and not for his immediate interpreters. Perhaps he resigned himself to boys while hoping for better things to come. Perhaps he dreamed that the characters would eventually be played by women--which is, after all, as he imagined them. --Charles Weinstein _______________________________________________________________ S H A K S P E R: The Global Shakespeare Discussion List Hardy M. Cook, editor@shaksper.net The S H A K S P E R Web Site <http://www.shaksper.net> DISCLAIMER: Although SHAKSPER is a moderated discussion list, the opinions expressed on it are the sole property of the poster, and the editor assumes no responsibility for them.
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