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SHAKSPER 2001: (R) Re: Lady Macbeth
From: Hardy M. Cook (editor@ws.bowiestate.edu) Date: 12/19/01
The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 12.2855 (R) Monday, 17 December 2001
[1] From: John Ramsay <jramsay@mergetel.com>
Date: Friday, 14 Dec 2001 13:30:54 -0500
Subj: Re: SHK 12.2832 Re: Lady Macbeth
[2] From: Brian Willis <bwillis90660@yahoo.com>
Date: Saturday, 15 Dec 2001 09:18:44 -0800 (PST)
Subj: Re: SHK 12.2832
[1]-----------------------------------------------------------------
From: John Ramsay <jramsay@mergetel.com>
Date: Friday, 14 Dec 2001 13:30:54 -0500
Subject: 12.2832 Re: Lady Macbeth
Comment: Re: SHK 12.2832 Re: Lady Macbeth
> > Actually, she is never referred to by the appellation Lady Macbeth.
> > Nor, I am told by Pamela Mason, do the early texts refer to her as Lady
> > Macbeth. There are three different variations of her designation as a
> > speech header. She is even called Macbeth's Lady but interestingly
> > enough never Lady Macbeth. It appears to be an early editor's
> > invention.
>
> Really? I have always liked the idea that Shakespeare had a specific
> reason for calling her Lady Macbeth, namely to show how Macbeth and Lady
> Macbeth are two sides of the same coin (reason and emotion, perhaps),
> and not distinct enough to have different names. Of course, I may have
> been assuming too much. Still, can we have some more detail on this?
> Which are the three speech headers?
>
> - Tue Sørensen
Shakespeare seems to use thane (old English and Scottish) and lord
interchangeably in 'Macbeth'.
Lady Macbeth and others call him 'lord'. Usually the title of a noble's
wife is 'lady'.
They had not got into higher gradations until the end of the play when
Malcolm announces 'earl' as a new rank in Scotland, partially I suspect,
because of the assistance of English Earl Siward.
I wonder what a thane's wife title was? Shakespeare did not use a female
equivalent to thane.
[2]-------------------------------------------------------------
From: Brian Willis <bwillis90660@yahoo.com>
Date: Saturday, 15 Dec 2001 09:18:44 -0800 (PST)
Subject: 12.2832 Re: Lady Macbeth
Comment: Re: SHK 12.2832 Re: Lady Macbeth
> Really? I have always liked the idea that
> Shakespeare had a specific
> reason for calling her Lady Macbeth, namely to show
> how Macbeth and Lady
> Macbeth are two sides of the same coin (reason and
> emotion, perhaps),
> and not distinct enough to have different names. Of
> course, I may have
> been assuming too much. Still, can we have some more
> detail on this?
> Which are the three speech headers?
>
> - Tue Sørensen
If I remember correctly, she is referred to alternately as Macbeth's
Lady (or M's La), wife (or wif.), or Lady. I assume the abbreviations
are the compositor fitting the line. It's just interesting that
technically, we have grown to call her Lady Macbeth.
Brian Willis
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