SHAKSPER 1999: Re: References to the Bible in Shakespeare
From: Hardy M. Cook (editor@ws.bowiestate.edu)
Date: 10/15/99
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The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 10.1750 Friday, 15 October 1999.
[1] From: Larry Weiss <pgw@idt.net>
Date: Thursday, 14 Oct 1999 13:43:56 -0400
Subj: Re: References to the Bible in Shakespeare
[2] From: Judith Matthews Craig <je-mc@apex2000.net>
Date: Thursday, 14 Oct 1999 15:47:13 -0500
Subj: Re: References to the Bible in Shakespeare
[1]-----------------------------------------------------------------
From: Larry Weiss <pgw@idt.net>
Date: Thursday, 14 Oct 1999 13:43:56 -0400
Subject: 10.1742 Re: References to the Bible in Shakespeare
Comment: Re: SHK 10.1742 Re: References to the Bible in Shakespeare
Do modern students understand Hamlet's references to Niobe and Hercules,
for example, more readily than his reference to Jephthah? If not,
shouldn't we be concerned with the loss of catholic (small c) education
in general rather than secularization in particular?
[2]-------------------------------------------------------------
From: Judith Matthews Craig <je-mc@apex2000.net>
Date: Thursday, 14 Oct 1999 15:47:13 -0500
Subject: 10.1742 Re: References to the Bible in Shakespeare
Comment: Re: SHK 10.1742 Re: References to the Bible in Shakespeare
Sean Lawrence writes:
>Since New Historicism has tended to implicitly
>agree with Machiavelli and Hobbes, it misses the other side of religion,
>as the most potent locus of alterity in the Renaissance mind.
As someone very interested in Shakespeare and his use of the Bible, I
was wondering what "alterity" means. I guess this question dates me as
pre-post-modern. Whatever that means.
Judy Craig
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