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Shakespeare Electronic Conference, Vol. 6, No. 0322.  Wednesday, 19 April 1995.
 
(1)     From:   Bruce J. McIver <3074bmac@ucsbuxa.ucsb.edu>
        Date:   Wednesday, 19 Apr 1995 00:31:49 -0700 (PDT)
        Subj:   Re: SHK 6.0313 *Lear* Ending and Question
 
(2)     From:   Nicholas Ranson <R1NR@AKRONVM>
        Date:   Wednesday, 19 Apr 95 00:04:57 EDT
        Subj:   Re: SHK 6.0313  *Lear* Ending and Question
 
 
(1)----------------------------------------------------------------------------
From:           Bruce J. McIver <3074bmac@ucsbuxa.ucsb.edu>
Date:           Wednesday, 19 Apr 1995 00:31:49 -0700 (PDT)
Subject: 6.0313 *Lear* Ending and Question
Comment:        Re: SHK 6.0313 *Lear* Ending and Question
 
The ending of Lear is pure pain in the original.  In my dissertation, "Upon
Such Sacrifices: King Lear and the Late Comedies," I argued that Lear is a kind
of inverted romance and that its ending, as the negative does the positive,
anticipates the endings of most of the romances.
 
(2)----------------------------------------------------------------------------
From:           Nicholas Ranson <R1NR@AKRONVM>
Date:           Wednesday, 19 Apr 95 00:04:57 EDT
Subject: 6.0313  *Lear* Ending and Question
Comment:        Re: SHK 6.0313  *Lear* Ending and Question
 
Pagan Gods in Lear:
 
Lear doesn't refer or swear by pagan gods after III.iv in <Lear>, if I recall;
Kent's "Now, by Apollo, King, thou swear'st thy gods in vain." (I.i.106) gives
the clue: he must be weaned from his addiction to false gods. After the h eath
scene, III.iv. where Lear ushers Kent and the Fool into the hovel before
himself, we see the journey though madness paralleled by a schooled spirit that
no longer invokes ineffectual pagan dieties.  Somewhere in SQ there's an
article to this effect. Good luck.

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