• Next message: Hardy M. Cook: "Double-Jointed Babes"
• Previous message: Hardy M. Cook: "Rs: *Macbeth* Question"
• Messages sorted by: [ date ] [ thread ] [ subject ]

Shakespeare Electronic Conference, Vol. 3, No. 361. Wednesday, 9 December 1992.
 
From:           Cariann Mathwig <MATHWIG@UWLAX.EDU>
Date:           Wednesday, 9 Dec 92 16:38 CDT
Subject:        Shakespeare as Himself
 
I am looking for information on the idea of whether or not Shakespeare
ever, in writing his plays, speaks through his own voice.  Many argue
that he does so in the Ghost character of _Hamlet_, but does this
happen in other characters and plays as well?  Are there times when
Shakespeare acts as an "opinion editor" of sorts?
 
I realize that there are many ways to prove this idea, but is it ever
blatant?  Any input would be greatly appreciated.
 
 
Cariann Mathwig
University of Wisconsin - La Crosse
MATHWIG@UWLAX (bitnet)
MATHWIG@UWLAX.EDU (internet)

• Next message: Hardy M. Cook: "Double-Jointed Babes"
• Previous message: Hardy M. Cook: "Rs: *Macbeth* Question"
• Messages sorted by: [ date ] [ thread ] [ subject ]